I would like to point out a rather glaring inaccuracy in Jennifer Wallace's article on whether Shakespeare wrote the play Edward III (THES, August 30). The veracity of her argument can be discussed by more learned people than myself. However, I must say that I deplore historical inaccuracy. I would like to point out that James I of Scotland never became King of England, his descendant James VI of Scotland became King of England in 1603.
Robert Allan University of Huddersfield